This return 1.
I think “true” option means upper bounary and efficiency=100/100=1.
So, This means the upper limit (error?) of efficiency is 1+1=2 ?.
I think upper boundary is zero if efficiency =0. I can’t understand this result.
Second
I can’t understand “P(x ≧ passed; total)=(1-level)/2” in document you sent.
Where does “(1-level)/2” term come from?
This is my lack of knowledge about statistics.
Please teach me if possible…
The function it returns the upper value of the efficiency. In case the central value ( npassed/ntotal) is very close to 1, the upper interval value is then 1 as expected.
The upper/lower error value (computed at 68% confidence level ) are as following:
For the second question, P(x ≧ passed; total)=(1-level)/2 comes from the definition of the upper interval. The probability to get a value outside the confidence interval is 1.-condidence_level.
Then if you consider only the upper interval and by definition you want equal probability on the lower/upper side, then you divide by a factor 2.
Thank you for your answer.
I forgot to change the third argument. I treated it as percentage notation.
And I misunderstood the meaning of upper/lower boundary.
And thank you for your second answer.
I study your answer as a reference.